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Postby Lawrence » Feb 26th, '10, 19:58



Gary Dickson wrote:
Lawrence wrote:I'm not seeing it at all.
From an double entry audit point of view can you explain where the opposing side of this magically appearing money is?
If you can't then this is illegal.

Cheers


As I've said, I'm not an economist, neither am I an accountant. I don't understand your question. Could you rephrase it?


Every penny of money that comes in to/out of a company is recorded on their ledgers with an opposing, balancing, entry recorded in the relevant account to show what that money is for.
EG, if my company spent £1000 on a car we would record that £1000 has gone out of the bank and balance this by recording that £1000 had been on a car in the ledger.
also the car company would record £1000 coming into their bank and balance this by recording that £1000 had been made in their sales account.

If this isn't something you are aware of I suggest you study up on this
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Double_entry_book_keeping
could be a good starting point.

2 points. where do i record this money in my ledger? and where has it come from?

The bottom line is, if you cannot account for where is additional money is coming from (i.e, if money is coming in to you it must be leaving someone); then a law is being broken somewhere.

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Postby Ant » Feb 26th, '10, 20:04

In answer to those of you querying the existence of money here is a simple version of what money actually is. It should explain to some degree some of what Gary is referring too but also by it's nature undermine the majority of the case he is trying to establish.

Money is very simply an agreed item to use for the trade of goods without any goods actually being involved.

For example, back in ye olde days when you wanted to buy 20 goats for 20 sheep you needed to transport 20 sheep to the goat seller and do the trade there and then, however money is like giving someone who is happy to perform the trade a "20 Sheep Note". This acts as a credit guarantee that you will swap 20 Sheep for 20 Goats.

The problem arises when you do not want sheep or goats and want say timber, how do you agree a fair trade for the value of timber? In order to make transactions simpler currency was introduced as a standardised trading value in order allow free and easy trade. As this "money" has no intrinsic value, it needs to be secured against something, originally this was the gold standard.

Basically you could take a £10 note to the good old treasury and say I want £10 worth of gold bullion please, and they would give it to you.

The problem arose when a number of very smart but sneaky b***** bankers decided that they would take this problem out of government hands and deal with it themselves. They were to be called the Bank of England (which is a private company not a government or state entity).

This is where fractional banking comes in to play (or fractional reserve banking to give it the full name). This is basically a rule that states in order to remain solvent a bank is required to keep at least 10% of it's total liabilities in realisable assets. Formerly this was gold, however now it's numbers on a screen (ergo money does not exist in a worth term as there is nothing to back it up, this is what Gary means by FIAT currency).

What this is also means that if a bank lends £9 million to it's customers, it must have £1 million in reserve. Where it get's really confusing is that they only need £1 million to lend the other £9 million (Lawrence, this would be the creating money out of nothing scenario).

So, does money exist as a valuable commodity, no. It has no intrinsic value. HOWEVER it DOES have a LEGAL value, and this is where the majority of Gary's argument falls down in my eyes.

Money is recognised by everyone, or rather currency is. It's worth is now based upon the issuing country (hence the international fluctuation in value). The stronger the countries economy the more valuable the currency. Due to this legally recognised existence of money you cannot argue that the money never existed and was merely created through the fractional banking system.

The only part of what Gary says that to my mind makes sense is that the giro credit is a financial instrument, however once again this is merely a currency in it's own right to propagate trade between credit companies, therefore by trying to use it as a form of currency I would wonder if this may be a form of theft or fraud in it's own right as it does not technically belong to you and is issued to expediate the transaction, not to settle it. Therefore even if it was used to "settle" a debt, the debt would still exist.

To try and simplify;

Credit company issue giro slip (technically an IOU) for £1, they are now minus £1 plus whatever debt you owe. You send back as payment, the £1 becomes £0 however your debt is still outstanding.

For those of you still unclear on fractional reserve banking then Wikipedia has a reasonably good explanation. I'll stop there because I think I'm rambling and entering other tangents!

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Postby Lawrence » Feb 26th, '10, 20:15

A_n_t wrote:What this is also means that if a bank lends £9 million to it's customers, it must have £1 million in reserve. Where it get's really confusing is that they only need £1 million to lend the other £9 million (Lawrence, this would be the creating money out of nothing scenario).


Not seeing it, bank has £10m, lends £9m has £1m in reserve.
Until someone explains this to me in double entry format then this is just reminding me of so much hypnosis material

Edit: just to add a bit more of maths geekery to this
A_n_t wrote: I think I'm rambling and entering other tangents!

A tanget is actually in the same direction of the conversation curve at that given point. :wink:

Last edited by Lawrence on Feb 26th, '10, 20:19, edited 1 time in total.
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Postby IanKendall » Feb 26th, '10, 20:16

Ian, please stop insulting me. You strike me as an intelligent man with a strong sense of morals. Such behaviour demeans you


I am an intelligent man with a strong sense of morals. Which is exactly why I find your actions so repulsive.

I think Ant has just explained how your case does not hold up.

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Postby Gary Dickson » Feb 26th, '10, 20:25

My understanding of remittances is different. My understanding is that it is currency issued in your name. Also, this is a credit rather than a debit. If this is not the case I'm happy to accept that. However, as the FSA has confirmed that it is a financial instrument and that I can use it to off-set/credit the balance of the account pursuant to the Bills of Echange Act 1882 I still need to see some evidence.

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Postby Gary Dickson » Feb 26th, '10, 20:28

Lawrence wrote:
A_n_t wrote:What this is also means that if a bank lends £9 million to it's customers, it must have £1 million in reserve. Where it get's really confusing is that they only need £1 million to lend the other £9 million (Lawrence, this would be the creating money out of nothing scenario).


Not seeing it, bank has £10m, lends £9m has £1m in reserve.
Until someone explains this to me in double entry format then this is just reminding me of so much hypnosis material

Edit: just to add a bit more of maths geekery to this
A_n_t wrote: I think I'm rambling and entering other tangents!

A tanget is actually in the same direction of the conversation curve at that given point. :wink:


My understanding is that if the bank wishes to lend £10m, they only need to be in possession of £1m - they need to have 10% of the money they wish to lend.

A lot of points have been raised in this thread and due to the limited extent of my knowledge I'm not sure how to respond. I'm going to speak with some friends who have much more knowledge and will get back to you.

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Postby Lawrence » Feb 26th, '10, 20:29

so if a bank only has £1m how exactly does it go about giving people £10m? it only has £1m to give out.
banks cannot just issue money willy nilly (he he)

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Postby IanKendall » Feb 26th, '10, 20:30

After all this, and your letters (or whatever you called them) to the credit company saying that in three days the balance will be written off, do you still claim that you are not trying to get out of paying your debt?

Really honourable, that. Sheesh.

And it would be impossible for me to demean myself by commenting on someone about whom I have so much contempt.

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Postby Klangster1971 » Feb 26th, '10, 20:42

Maybe the question should really be....

Why wouldn't you wish to settle the debt in the time honoured fashion of using your own money to do so? Did you not receive the good or services that were paid for under this agreement?

I really want to be on your side, Gary... but am just finding it hard to understand.


Sean

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Postby Mandrake » Feb 26th, '10, 21:05

I sense that this thread had turned into a never ending circle so let's all move on shall we?

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